The members of the Board of Nursing are Carmencita M. Abaquin, Chairman; Leonila A. Faire, Betty F. Merritt, Perla G. Po, Marco Antonio C. Sto.Tomas, Yolanda C. Arugay and Amelia B. Rosales, Members.
The July 2011 NLE results with respect to six (6) examinees were withheld pending final determination of their liabilities under the rules and regulations governing licensure examination.
Pursuant to Section 16, of Republic Act No. 9173, “all successful candidates in the examination shall be required to take an oath of professional before the Board or any government official authorized to administer oaths prior to entering upon the nursing practice”.
Registration for new nurses shall require the following: duly accomplished Oath Form or Panunumpa ng Propesyonal, current Community Tax Certificate (cedula), 2 pieces passport size picture (colored with white background and complete name tag), 1 piece 1” x 1” picture (colored with white background and complete name tag), 2 sets of metered documentary stamps and 1 short brown envelope with name and profession; and to pay the Initial Registration Fee of P600 and Annual Registration Fee of P450 for 2011-2014. Successful examinees should personally register and sign in the Roster of Registered Professionals.
The dates and venues of all oathtaking for new nurses will be announced later.
Time Tomorrow at 8:00am - Saturday at 5:00pm
Location
More Info 1.Training for Red Cross Youth is rescheduled to May 12-14, 2011
Registration fee is P350. Payment is needed by next week, Wednesday (May 11). kay kuya andrie ang bayad.. kindly txt him to these numbers (09395505214/ 09062998762/ 09333006483)
Training includes certificate and RCY membership I.D.
2.Attire will be rubber shoes, maong pants and T-shirt. No shorts, sandals, flip flops, sando, spag strap or alike. For the girls no make-up but please do bring your lips stick.
3. Please bring extra T-shirt, towelletes, water and packed lunch. Bring also Manila paper and Pentel pen per group of five.
This training is for humanitarian purposes..
Pls reply to this event or click attend for the confirmation of those who willl surely attend the training..
Dont miss the opportunity! :)
Thanks
Answer the 20 item exam
and get your scores below!
from: Philippine Nurse
Answer the 20 item exam
and get your scores below!
1. Jenny is placed on Lithium therapy. Early signs of toxicity include:
A. tinnitus
B. vomiting
C. ataxia
D. stupor
2. The therapeutic blood lithium level is:
A. 2.5 MEq/L and above
B. 1.5-2.5 MEq/L
C. 0.5-1.5 MEq/L
D. 1.5-2.0 MEq/L
3. To reduce overt aggression from a manic patient the following are appropriate measures EXCEPT:
A. Participation in competitive games
B. Encouraging relaxation techniques
C. Reduction in environmental stimuli
D. Encourage client to discuss angry feelings
4. The biochemical theory of manic behavior may be related to:
A. Neurotransmitter deficiency
B. Excessive level of Norepinephrine
C. Increased cholinergic activity
D. Increased noreadrenergic activity
5. Karla was given a diagnosis of Depression with Suicidal tendencies. In planning the nursing care for her, which of the following should be given priority?
A. Allow relatives to visit him
B. Meet his daily self-care needs
C. Keep him safe from self-harm
D. Maintain his daily nutritional needs
6. You noticed that Karla combed her hair for the first time while in the hospital. You validate the meaning of her behavior by saying:
A. Tell me how you did that
B. I sense that you feel good today. Tell me what's happening
C. I like the way you arranged your hair. It's nice.
D. Is that your favorite hairdo?
7. Karla was scheduled for ECT. The most frequent complication of ECT is:
A. Loss of consciousness and headache
B. Restlessness and confusion
C. Fractures of the vertebra & long bones
D. Temporary memory loss and apnea
8. The appropriate activity for a depressed withdrawn client should be:
A. reading a novel
B. playing chess
C. taking a walk
D. listening to music
9. Suicide precaution should be strictly observed when the client exhibits which of the following manifestations?
A. the client feels weak and tired
B. the client expresses hostile feelings
C. the client has sudden cheerfulness
D. the client is agitated
10. Tricyclic Antidepressant was prescribed for Karla. While taking the TCA, she should be observed for:
A. diarrhea
B. constipation
C. muscle rigidity
D. polyuria
11. Carlos, age 35 was brought to the rehabilitation center for detoxification. He is a known alcoholic for ten years. Upon assessment, the reason he was asked when was his last intake of alcohol is:
A. Specific period when withdrawal symptoms may set in
B. How far the dependency has progressed
C. To determine the development of delirium tremens
D. Severity of withdrawal client may experience
12. Carlos tells the nurse how he hit his wife after an argument they had and asked if he would ever be forgiven. The best response of the nurse is:
A. You seem to have bad feelings about hitting your wife.
B. You may ask her when she visits you.
C. That depends if you'll be good enough during your confinement.
D. If it's okay with you, we can discuss that during the family therapy.
13. During the night, Carlos suddenly cries out as he saw shadows on the wall, - No, don't take me, noooh!! The nurse's best response would be:
A. What do the shadows mean to you, Carlos?
B. Go back to sleep you're just having a nightmare.
C. No one's here but you and me Carlos, You're safe here.
D. Tell me what you feel Carlos, I'm here to help.
14. Carlos is noted to fabricate information due to his memory lapses. The nurse is aware that this is done to:
A. maintain self-esteem
B. gain sympathy
C. manipulate others
D. attract attention
15. An attitude that the nurse must assume to be most help to Carlos is:
A. Warm and accommodating
B. Firmly consistent yet accepting
C. Acceptance and permisiveness
D. Judgmental and moralistic
16. Robin, known to be substance dependent for 3 years is admitted to the ER. Upon assessment he was found to be on drugs, with pinpoint pupils with RR of 9. Robin is likely to be suffering from:
A. Cocaine intoxication
B. Cocaine withdrawal
C. Heroine intoxication
D. Heroine withdrawal
17. Most appropriate nursing diagnosis for Robin is:
A. alteration in social interaction
B. alteration in sensory perception
C. ineffective individual coping
D. impaired adjustment
18. The medication likely to be to Robin for the withdrawal from the substance will be:
A. Methadone
B. Librium
C. Narcan
D. Disulfiram
19. During withdrawal Robin will likely manifest:
A. rapid respiration, dilated pupils, rapid pulse
B. synesthesia, increased vital signs, aggression
C. lacrimation, yawning restlessness
D. sleepy languor, poor concentration, euphoria
20. Chronic use of marijuana may lead to:
A. Emphysema and lung cancer
B. Korsakoffs and Wernickes syndrome
C. Hepatitis and AIDS
D. Cardiomyopathy
Score =
Correct answers:
from: Philippine Nurse
Answer the 20 item exam
and get your scores below!
1. Romy, 14 y/o was admitted to a medical ward due to bronchial asthma after learning that his mother is leaving for UK to work as a nurse. Romy's behavioral symptoms may be conveying which of the following message?
A. I am alone and helpless
B. I hate you for leaving me
C. Everyone needs attention
D. I deserve to be punished
2. The initial goal in the nursing care for Romy is:
A. Teach relaxation techniques
B. Encourage verbalization of feelings and concerns
C. Teach alternative ways of coping
D. Alleviate the patient's physical symptoms
3. The individual with essential hypertension is thought to:
A. Suppress anger and hostility
B. Fear social interactions with others
C. Project feelings onto environment
D. Deny responsibility for own behavior
4. Mr. Jose, bank executive is described by his subordinates as meticulous, scrupulous and wants every work to be on time. What physical illness would he be vulnerable?
A. Essential Hypertension
B. Bronchial Asthma
C. Migraine
D. D. Dermatitis
5. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for Mr. Jose would be:
A. Alteration in health maintenance related to knowledge deficit
B. Ineffective individual coping related to inadequate psychological resources
C. Ineffective denial related to poorly developed defensive function
D. Altered thought process related to withdrawal to the self
6. Chad, 23 years old, was admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia Paranoid type. As you approach Chad, he says, "If you come any closer, I'll die". This is an example of:
A. Hallucination
B. Delusion
C. Illusion
D. Ideas of reference
7. Your best response for this behavior is:
A. How can I hurt you?
B. Chad, I am your Nurse
C. Tell me more about this.
D. That's a silly thing to say
8. When communicating with a paranoid client, the main principle is to:
A. Use logic and be persistent
B. Express doubt and do not argue
C. Provide an anxiety free environment
D. Encourage ventilation of anger
9. In planning for a client who has negative symptoms of Schizophrenia, the nurse would anticipate a problem with:
A. bizarre behaviors
B. motivation for activities
C. ideas of reference
D. tactile hallucinations
10. The patient is asked, "Have you eaten?" and answered, "Have you eaten, Have you eaten, Have you eaten?" This phenomenon is called as:
A. Echolalia
B. Verbigeration
C. Dissociation
D. Neologism
11. How will you help a patient anticipate and deal with future recurrence of hallucination?
A. Stay with the patient all the time
B. Examine the patient's ways of dealing with hallucinations
C. Help patient accept that hallucination is a part of his mental illness
D. Assigning permanent staff who knows when the patient hallucinates
12. Your assessment of a patient with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia will most likely reveal the following sets of behavior?
A. Aloofness, distrust, suspiciousness, grandiosity
B. Regression, giggling, smiling, laughing
C. Anxious, bizarre behavior, depression, elation
D. Stupor, hallucinations, negativism and automatism
13. Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of Antipsychotic drug?
A. Sedation
B. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
C. Extrapyramidal symptoms
D. Anticholinergic effects
14. Anton diagnosed with Schizophrenia Disorganized type was observed sitting alone, looking frightened. How should the nurse approach him?
A. Approach Anton, touch him on the arm and say: I'm your nurse.
B. Sit across him and say: Hi, I'm Rose your nurse. You appear frightened.
C. Greet him and say: Come I'll show you around.
D. Allow him to remain alone until he feels more comfortable
15. The goal of rehabilitation of a Schizophrenic is to:
A. learn effective coping
B. involve the family in client care
C. find employment for the client
D. facilitate optimal functioning of patient
16. Jenny was admitted to the Psychiatric unit exhibiting elation, incessant chattering and hyperactivity. Which of the following nursing diagnostic categories would hold the highest priority for her?
A. Hopelessness
B. Potential for injury
C. Personal identity disturbance
D. Ineffective individual coping
17. Jenny starts saying, "You will be promoted. Just go to Malacanang, see my cousin GMA. She is experiencing:
A. illusion
B. verbigeration
C. hallucination
D. delusion
18. Sensing that people don't believe her, she shouted," I'm really the cousin of GMA. Why don't you believe me? I own 10 buildings in Makati and the Fort Area. An effective approach of the nurse should be to:
A. listen attentively
B. leave her to a co-patient
C. start presenting reality
D. give reasons for not believing her
19. The primary reason for assigning a private room for Jenny is:
A. Decrease environmental stimuli
B. Prevent the patient's excessive activity from disturbing others
C. Deter the patient from interrupting the nurses
D. Provide the patient with a quiet place to thinking about her problems
20. The highest priority nursing intervention for a hyperactive patient like Jenny would be:
A. Discourage her from manipulating the staff
B. Prevent her assaulting other patients
C. Protect her against suicidal attempts
D. Provide adequate food and fluid intake
Score =
Correct answers:
from: Philippine Nurse
Answer the 20 item exam
and get your scores below!
1. The client's chest tube is having removed. Which of the following actions is most appropriate in caring for a person who undergoes this procedure?
A. assist the client to assume a prone position
B. medicate the client for pain half hour prior to removal
C. encourage deep breathing during removal
D. empty the collection chambers before removal
2. The nurse is caring for a client with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would most likely take highest priority?
A. Activity intolerance
B. Anxiety
C. Risk for ineffective airway clearance
D. Risk for fluid volume deficit
3. The client has a lung abscess. Which nursing intervention should be included in the plan to increase the client's level of comfort?
A. encourage activity prior to meals
B. offer frequent oral hygiene
C. provide easy to eat milk products
D. restrict fluid intake
4. The nurse is assessing the laboratory values of a male client being evaluated for GI bleeding. Which laboratory value, if present, would be most suggestive of hemorrhage?
A. RBC = 5 million/mm3
B. hematocrit = 35%
C. Potassium = 4 mg/L
D. Sodium = 140 mg/L
5. The nurse administers an anticholinergic drug to a client scheduled for an endoscopy. What effect should be expected from this medication?
A. sedation
B. increased peristalsis
C. muscle relaxation
D. decreased secretion
6. Metoclopramide is prescribed for an individual with GERD. The nurse is explaining the action of this drug. Which statement most accurately describes the action of the drug?
A. it decreases the time food and fluids are in the stomach
B. it acts as an antacid to reduce gastric acidity
C. it helps to promote movement in the esophagus
D. it has a local anesthetic effect on the lower esophagus and stomach
7. The nurse is teaching a family member how to position a client who is to receive tube feedings in the home. Which instruction is most appropriate?
A. place the client in a left side- lying position
B. elevate head of the bed slightly
C. encourage the client to sit out of bed in a chair
D. allow the client to assume a position of comfort
8. A client who has to have an accumulation of gas and fluid removed from the gastrointestinal tract is connected to intermittent suction. If there were no drainage from the suction, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. discontinue the suction
B. increase the amount of suction
C. obtain orders to irrigate the tube
D. advance the tube down the GI tract
9. What measure should the nurse employ to ensure that a client receiving TPN does not develop osmotic diuresis as a complication?
A. monitor the flow rate carefully
B. administer the solution slowly
C. protect the solution from light
D. keep the infusion at room temperature
10. When caring for a client with TPN, which action by the nurse has the potential to cause serious adverse effects in the client?
A. abruptly discontinuing TPN at any time
B. administering the TPN solution via an infusion pump
C. applying an antibiotic ointment to the insertion site
D. maintaining the normal flow rate when the infusion is behind schedule
11. The nurse is recording data from a man newly admitted to the hospital. Which notation, if made by the nurse, is most consistent with the presence of a duodenal ulcer?
A. food causes pain
B. the client complains of spitting blood
C. pain may awaken the client in the middle of the night
D. certain types of food increase distress
12. A client is admitted with a history of fatigue and melena and tentatively diagnosed to have duodenal ulcer. The nurse administers alternating doses of calcium carbonate and magnesium oxide. Which finding best indicates that this drug regimen has been successful?
A. absent nasogastric tube drainage
B. increase gastric pH
C. mild diarrhea
D. decreased abdominal rigidity
13. The severely damaged liver cannot produce the important plasma protein, albumin. Identify the clinical problem that would be expected in a client with a low albumin level.
A. abnormal bleeding
B. polyuria
C. edema
D. weight loss
14. The nurse is assessing a client with gallbladder disease. Which of these findings, if present in the client's history, is commonly found in individuals with gallbladder disease?
A. she complains of her skin being very itchy
B. she is 30 pounds overweight for her height
C. she has had several nosebleeds
D. she feels tired all the time
15. The nurse is participating in a screening program. The nurse should NOT have a high index of suspicion for diabetes mellitus for which individual.
A. an obese 43 year old woman
B. a man complaining of thirst and weight loss
C. a young woman who has had two babies weighing 10 pounds each
D. an adolescent whose grandmother has type I diabetes
16. The nurse is evaluating a young man with diabetes. The client reports a number of symptoms. Which symptom is considered a cardinal sign of diabetes?
A. overwhelming fatigue
B. excessive thirst
C. recurrent blurred vision
D. gradual weight loss
17. A client complains of headache and tells the nurse she feels weak. She is also diaphoretic. The client has been a diabetic for 20 years. The client tells the nurse, "I've been managing my diabetes for a long time; please let me lie down. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. assist the client to bed
B. insist that the client eat a snack
C. page the physician
D. start an IV line
18. The nurse assessing the client with hypothyroidism should assign the highest priority to the assessment of which laboratory value?
A. serum calcium levels
B. serum cholesterol levels
C. serum potassium levels
D. urine specific gravity
19. A client has hyperthyroidism. He is admitted to the hospital for the emergency treatment of thyroid storm (thyrotoxicosis). What symptoms should the nurse plan to address?
A. fluid overload
B. hypothermia
C. respiratory distress
D. tachycardia
20. A client is returning to the surgical ward after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy. What emergency equipment should the nurse have available at the bedside for this client?
A. an ECG monitor
B. a defibrillator
C. an intra-aortic balloon pump
D. a tracheostomy unit
Score =
Correct answers:
from: Philippine Nurse
Answer the 20 item exam
and get your scores below!
1. The nurse should encourage clients with intermittent claudication to:
A. give up smoking
B. decrease physical activity, especially walking
C. increase calcium intake
D. restrict caffeine intake
2. A client is to undergo a bone marrow aspiration. When teaching the client about this procedure, the nurse should explain that it is used to:
A. identify blood abnormalities
B. determine long term prognosis
C. assess for presence of infection
D. determine the RBC indices
3. Following the client�s bone marrow aspiration, which of the following nursing intervention should be instituted?
A. apply firm pressure to the area until bleeding stops
B. provide a warm, moist compress to the site
C. encourage the client to assume a supine position
D. place an occlusive dressing on the area for 24 hours
4. Which of the following laboratory test results would be most helpful to the nurse in the assessment of a client with a bleeding disorder?
A. red blood cell count
B. platelet count
C. hematocrit
D. differential count
5. While performing an admission assessment on a severely anemic client, the nurse would expect to find a history of:
A. blurred vision
B. increased appetite
C. cardiac palpitations
D. warm flushing sensations
6. The nurse is explaining the diagnosis of pernicious anemia to the client, which of the following is accurate concerning the disease?
A. shortness of breath often occurs
B. the risk for dehydration is increased
C. it is caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor
D. there is no treatment for this disorder
7. The nurse is caring for a client with Aplastic anemia. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would have priority in the care of this client?
A. Potential for infection due to decreased leukocyte count
B. Impaired gas exchanged due to low RBC count
C. Potential for impairment of skin integrity due to poor nutritional status
D. Alteration in bowel elimination: constipation due to iron overload
8. Emphysema destroys alveolar walls. The physiological effect that the nurse expects from this damage is:
A. a decrease level of carbon dioxide in the body
B. a decrease in the amount of oxygen diffusing into the blood
C. severe constriction of the segmental and subsegmental bronchi
D. an accumulation of excess fluid in the lungs
9. The nurse received a report that the client has hypercapnia. What respiratory disorder will the nurse expect to note?
A. excessive respiratory secretions
B. inability to take a deep breath
C. increased respiratory rate
D. retention of carbon dioxide
10. The nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty of breathing. The muscles between the ribs retract with inspiratory effort. The nurse noted that the client is having retraction of which muscles?
A. articular
B. bronchoesophageal
C. intercostal
D. latissimus dorsi
11. A client has a chronic productive cough and is being treated for emphysema. What physical assessment findings are most consistent with this patient�s history?
A. barrel chest
B. lordosis
C. pectus excavatum
D. whispered pectoriloquy
12. The nurse is caring for an adult who has congenital pulmonary disorder that has resulted in a decrease in the production of surfactant. What effect is most consistent with this deficiency?
A. alveolar hypertrophy
B. sleep apnea
C. stiff lungs
D. ventilator dependence
13. The nurse hears a high, hollow drum-like sound when percussing the chest of the client with a large pneumothorax. How should this sound be noted on documentation
A. dullness
B. flatness
C. resonance
D. tympany
14. The nurse percusses an area of dullness on the anterior chest at the level of the 10th right rib of the client who has been diagnosed for many years with COPD. The most appropriate interpretation of this finding is the percussion note was elicited over:
A. a pneumothorax
B. an area of pneumonia
C. liver tissue
D. a pleural effusion
15. The nurse is assessing the PaO2 of a client with asthma. This blood gas result will best assist the nurse to obtain information of what nature?
A. the effectiveness of ventilation
B. the degree of dyspnea
C. the degree of hypoxia
D. the status of tissue oxygenation
16. To prevent the leaking of blood into surrounding tissue following the blood extraction for ABG determination, the nurse should implement which nursing measure:
A. apply ice to the puncture site
B. maintain manual compression over the puncture site for five minutes
C. place bandage over a sterile cotton swab over the puncture site for at least one minute
D. elevate the limb on several pillows
17. The client is an asthmatic and in acute respiratory distress. The nurse auscultates the lungs and notes no inspiratory wheezing. What should this finding suggest to the nurse?
A. airway constriction requiring intensive interventions
B. an appropriate reaction to the medications used in the management of client
C. the need to assess the client further for signs of a pleural effusion
D. overuse of the intercostals muscles resulting in poor exchange
18. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a 76 year old client with COPD who has the nursing diagnosis of airway clearance ineffective related to excessive secretions and ineffective coughing?
A. encourage breathing using a panting pattern
B. have the client sit in a low Fowler�s position
C. instruct the client to drink at least eight glasses of water a day
D. discourage pursed-lip breathing
19. A client is hospitalized with pneumonia. The nurse has made the nursing diagnosis, breathing pattern, ineffective related to tachypnea secondary to chest pain. The nurse administers analgesia as prescribed. What additional assessment is needed following medication administration?
A. auscultation of the chest
B. ECG
C. evaluation of pupillary reaction
D. testing of muscle strength
20. Intermittent bubbling is noted in the water seal chamber of a client who has a chest tube in place due to a pneumothorax. Which action of the nurse is most appropriate based on this observation?
A. clamp the chest tube
B. encourage respiratory exercises
C. change the drainage unit
D. place a Vaseline gauze around the chest tube
Answer the 20 item exam and get your scores below!
1. Which of the following is the most common manifestations of osteoporosis?
A. significant weight loss
B. fractures
C. urinary calculi
D. long bone pain
2. The nurse is teaching a class on osteoarthritis. The nurse�s understanding of this disorder is best described as:
A. degeneration of articular cartilage in synovial joints
B. enzymatic breakdown of tissue in non-weight bearing joints
C. joint destruction caused by an autoimmune process
D. the overproduction of synovial fluid resulting in joint destruction
3. How does nicotine, a substance in cigarette smoke, increase the prevalence of CAD?
A. it decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
B. it increases the deposits of fat containing substances along the intima of blood vessels
C. it causes smooth muscle cell proliferation
D. it increases the likelihood of dysrhythmias and elevated heart rate, BP, & oxygen consumption
4. In most cases, which of the following is the cause of sudden cardiac death?
A. ventricular fibrillation
B. severe congestive heart failure
C. myocardial ischemia
D. unstable angina
5. Nurses can best help prevent CAD by teaching clients:
A. low fat, low-cholesterol diets
B. the importance of exercise
C. how to maintain normal BP
D. how to handle stress
6. The nurse is instructing a client in the proper administration of sublingual Nitroglycerin. Which of the following is correct and should be included in the teaching plan?
A. tablets should be stored in the refrigerator
B. repeat dosage after 5 minutes if pain is not relieve. Seek medical help if pain is not relieved after 3 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets
C. assess BP for reactive hypertension after each dose
D. headache is a rare side effect and should be reported to the physician
7. When administering Nifedipine (Procardia) to a client with a history of angina, the nurse should:
A. observe for signs of respiratory depression
B. monitor the client�s BP
C. observe for manifestation of GI bleeding
D. force fluids
8. When caring for a client immediately after an MI, the nurse�s first priority is:
A. relief of pain
B. monitoring for presence of dysrhythmias
C. prevention of embolism
D. relieving client�s apprehension
9. Which of the following nursing orders would be found on the care plan for a client for the first 24 hours after an MI?
A. utilize bedside commode for bowel movements
B. 200 calorie, soft diet
C. feed the patient
D. administer promethazine regularly
10. Which of the following would be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client after MI?
A. don�t begin sexual intercourse until after 3 months
B. begin walking frequently
C. take one aspirin every 8 hours as ordered
D. continue previous lifestyle when ready
11. When auscultating the respirations of a client in left ventricular heart failure, the nurse will most likely detect:
A. wheezing
B. loud expiratory sounds
C. loud inspiratory sounds
D. crackling sounds
12. In which position should the nurse place the client who is experiencing acute congestive heart failure (CHF)?
A. Sim�s position
B. supine
C. Trendelenburg
D. high Fowler�s with feet dependent
13. The most important action of Digitalis derivatives on the heart of a client in CHF is to:
A. re-establish normal heart rhythm
B. increase ventricular contractility
C. decrease dysrhythmias
D. decrease AV node refractory period
14. What is the long term effect of rheumatic fever?
A. Cardiomegaly
B. cardiac tamponade
C. sudden cardiac death syndrome
D. pericarditis
15. The client admitted for the treatment of rheumatic fever and has fever of 101 degrees F should have which activity order?
A. activity ad lib
B. bed rest
C. out of bed in a chair
D. exercise until the point of fatigue
16. The nurse is conducting a ward class for a group of client who are to undergo cardiac surgery. What information should the nurse include when discussing the use of the ventilation in the ICU immediately after surgery?
A. no visitors will be allowed while the client is intubated
B. refraining from coughing is especially important while using the ventilator
C. while being ventilated the client must remain on bed rest
D. the client will be unable to talk while being ventilated
17. A client is admitted to the hospital with chronic venous disease. Physical assessment of the client�s legs would most likely reveal:
A. erythema
B. reduced muscle mass
C. overgrowth of hair
D. decreased pulses
18. Which of the following manifestations would the nurse expect when assessing a client with arterial insufficiency?
A. warm, erythematous legs
B. thin fragile toenails
C. muscular atrophy
D. bounding arterial pulses
19. Which of the following is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
A. chronic renal disease
B. primary hyperaldosteronism
C. pregnancy induced hypertension
D. oral contraceptive use
20. A client is admitted to the ICU with malignant hypertension. Assessment of the client would most likely reveal symptoms of:
A. fluid overload
B. livery dysfunction
C. renal failure
D. exercise intolerance